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I have some questions about these statements:

Don't let him to mislead you

Don't let him mislead you

  1. Are both of the sentences correct?
  2. If both are interchangeable, which one sounds more natural to a native speaker?
  3. Is there a rule or structure that governs the second example - as that sentence does not have the full infinitive?

Other examples could be: 

"Don't let the devil deceive you."

Thanks!

Rossitten
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  • Related (duplicate?) [Allow (to) + infinitive, substantive, verb+ -ing.](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/11193/allow-to-infinitive-substantive-verb-ing) I'm sure the main reason learners have trouble here is simply because [*syntactically, **let** doesn't work exactly the same as **allow.***](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/11197/126) – FumbleFingers Sep 17 '22 at 16:02

1 Answers1

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The first statement is incorrect. The second statement Is perfect!

“let him to” is never used in UK English or any other English I know.

Richard Donovan
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