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Rodney Shewan points out that she should be read within a Romantic discourse as the story posits ‘an opposition of romantic commitment through passionate action to the relative safety of philosophic contemplation’ (43), although the ending appears unable to decide which of the two modes is the more attractive.

Source: The Fairy Tales of Oscar Wilde by Jarlath Killeen.

I would like to ask whether it is necessary to use the definite article before "more attractive"? Would it be a mistake not to use the article or to use the indefinite one?

Jason Bassford
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bart-leby
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    With or without, both are acceptable. Indefinite article would not be idiomatic, not unless you add a noun: *... which of the two is a more attractive **lifestyle|choice|pursuit|etc***. – Tᴚoɯɐuo Jul 15 '18 at 13:08
  • I edited the question to provide a more normal citation style (and remove the long URL in the text). – Jason Bassford Jul 15 '18 at 13:18
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    Possible duplicate of [Using 'most': with or without 'the'?](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77986/using-most-with-or-without-the) Also related, [most/most of/ the most of](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/5907/most-most-of-the-most-of) and [using “the” before “most” in a sentence](https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/161674/using-the-before-most-in-a-sentence) – FumbleFingers Jul 15 '18 at 15:07
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    ...as an aside, all four combinations (***the*** present or absent before ***two modes*** AND ***more attractive***) are perfectly valid, but it might take a highly skilled wordsmith to identify examples of four different "nuances" which could each best be conveyed using one of the alternatives. More highly skilled than me, at least. – FumbleFingers Jul 15 '18 at 15:13

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