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What is the difference between

I spoke to him.

and

I have spoken to him.

Does the former mean at this moment and the latter mean it had happened in the past?

Appreciate insight into this.

pyobum
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Jacob
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    For a very long discussion see [*What is the perfect, and how should I use it?*](http://ell.stackexchange.com/q/13255/32), especially §§ [3.1 Grammatical meaning](http://ell.stackexchange.com/a/13260/32), [3.2 Pragmatic meaning](http://ell.stackexchange.com/a/13261/32) and [4. When and how should I use the perfect?](http://ell.stackexchange.com/a/13262/32). – StoneyB on hiatus Oct 14 '15 at 14:14

4 Answers4

7

I spoke to him is using the simple past tense, which means the action is over. On the other hand I have spoke to him is using the Present perfect tense. Such tense is usually used when a past action or event is connected with the present. I'd understand you've had several conversations with him and likely will have more. Just bear in mind to use the auxiliary verb for questions: Does the former mean

Fábio Lopes da Silva
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"I spoke to him" (past tense) refers to an event in past time (yesterday, a week ago, a year ago). "I have spoken to him" (present perfect) refers to the momentary situation. A young employee plans to talk with his superior about a pay rise. The father may ask "Have you spoken to him?" (A question referring to the momentary situation). And the answer may be: "Yes, I have spoken to him."

rogermue
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I spoke to him -is a simple past and it used for the actions that happened in the past.

I have spoken to him or I've spoken to him -is a present perfect and it used for the action that happened in the past continues in the present .

Using time expression. I spoke to him yesterday.

I've spoken to him for 3years I've spoken to him since 2015

Nice guy
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"I have spoken" means "It has already been done" and is coonected with the present situation. "I spoke..." refers to the time completed in the past.

Liudmyla Komarova
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